Generalized Neyman-Pearson Lemma. Let f0(x),f1(x),⋯,fk(x) be k+1 probability density functions. Let ϕ0 be a test function of the formϕ0(x)=⎩⎨⎧1,γ(x),0, if if if f0(x)>∑j=1kajfj(x)f0(x)=∑j=1kajfj(x)f0(x)<∑j=1kajfj(x)where aj≥0 for j=1,⋯,k. Show that ϕ0 maximizes∫ϕ(x)f0(x)dxamong all ϕ,0≤ϕ≤1, such that∫ϕ(x)fj(x)dx≤∫ϕ0(x)fj(x)dx,j=1,2,⋯,k
Q. Generalized Neyman-Pearson Lemma. Let f0(x),f1(x),⋯,fk(x) be k+1 probability density functions. Let ϕ0 be a test function of the formϕ0(x)=⎩⎨⎧1,γ(x),0, if if if f0(x)>∑j=1kajfj(x)f0(x)=∑j=1kajfj(x)f0(x)<∑j=1kajfj(x)where aj≥0 for j=1,⋯,k. Show that ϕ0 maximizes∫ϕ(x)f0(x)dxamong all ϕ,0≤ϕ≤1, such that∫ϕ(x)fj(x)dx≤∫ϕ0(x)fj(x)dx,j=1,2,⋯,k
Understand Problem & Set Equation: Step 1: Understand the problem and set up the equation.We need to show that ϕ0 maximizes ∫ϕ(x)f0(x)dx under the constraints ∫ϕ(x)fj(x)dx≤∫ϕ0(x)fj(x)dx for j=1,2,…,k.
Analyze Test Function: Step 2: Analyze the test function ϕ0.\phi_0(x) = \begin{cases} \(\newline1 & \text{if } f_0(x) > \sum_{j=1}^k a_j f_j(x) \\\gamma(x) & \text{if } f_0(x) = \sum_{j=1}^k a_j f_j(x) \\0 & \text{if } f_0(x) < \sum_{j=1}^k a_j f_j(x) \end{cases}\)This function is designed to maximize f0(x) whenever possible by assigning the highest weight (1) when f0(x) is greater than the weighted sum of other densities.
Consider Other Test Function: Step 3: Consider any other test function ϕ that satisfies the constraints.For any ϕ such that 0≤ϕ≤1 and ∫ϕ(x)fj(x)dx≤∫ϕ0(x)fj(x)dx, we need to compare ∫ϕ(x)f0(x)dx to ∫ϕ0(x)f0(x)dx.
Use Properties & Constraints: Step 4: Use the properties of ϕ0 and the constraints.Since ϕ0 is maximized at points where f0(x) is highest relative to the other fj(x), any other ϕ that is less than or equal to ϕ0 at these points will result in a lower or equal integral value. This is because ϕ cannot exceed 1 and must adhere to the constraints for each fj(x).
Conclude Proof: Step 5: Conclude the proof.Given that ϕ0 is constructed to maximize f0(x) under the constraints, and any deviation from ϕ0 in the form of a lower value would decrease ∫ϕ(x)f0(x)dx, it follows that ϕ0 indeed maximizes the integral among all permissible ϕ.
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